Talk:Subprime mortgage crisis: Difference between revisions

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imported>Nick Gardner
imported>Larry Sanger
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:: Should the article be named [[Subprime mortgage crisis]] (singular) rather than [[Subprime mortgages crisis]] (plural)? Most news coverage I have seen uses the former (singular). [[User:J. Noel Chiappa|J. Noel Chiappa]] 16:35, 25 October 2008 (UTC)
:: Should the article be named [[Subprime mortgage crisis]] (singular) rather than [[Subprime mortgages crisis]] (plural)? Most news coverage I have seen uses the former (singular). [[User:J. Noel Chiappa|J. Noel Chiappa]] 16:35, 25 October 2008 (UTC)
I agree with Noel.  This article should be written in U.S. English and in U.S. English "subprime mortgage crisis" is correct. --[[User:Larry Sanger|Larry Sanger]] 12:48, 26 October 2008 (UTC)


==Text clarification==
==Text clarification==

Revision as of 06:48, 26 October 2008

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 Definition financial crisis arising from defaults on the United States mortgage markets. [d] [e]
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Useful article

This press report from 1999 may be of help: http://query.nytimes.com/gst/fullpage.html?res=9C0DE7DB153EF933A0575AC0A96F958260&sec=&spon=&pagewanted=1 Martin Baldwin-Edwards 08:52, 6 October 2008 (CDT)

I also found this (pdf download) a good source too. The growth of the mortgage bond market in the 80s is described in Michael Lewis' "Liar's Poker" (Chapter 5 et seq). J. Noel Chiappa 13:57, 25 October 2008 (UTC)

Article title

Most coverage I have seen uses the term Subprime mortgage crisis (i.e. singular) - should this be there? J. Noel Chiappa 13:59, 25 October 2008 (UTC)

I'm afraid I don't understand this question. Nick Gardner 15:00, 25 October 2008 (UTC)
Should the article be named Subprime mortgage crisis (singular) rather than Subprime mortgages crisis (plural)? Most news coverage I have seen uses the former (singular). J. Noel Chiappa 16:35, 25 October 2008 (UTC)

I agree with Noel. This article should be written in U.S. English and in U.S. English "subprime mortgage crisis" is correct. --Larry Sanger 12:48, 26 October 2008 (UTC)

Text clarification

At one the article says:

Bank mortgages came to account for a substantial proportion of a market that had previously been dominated by the government-sponsored agencies (Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac)

But I'm a little unclear on exactly what's meant here. Does it mean that banks were turning mortgages they held into securities without going through FNMA/FHLMC (either directly themselves, or by selling them to investment banks which did the repackaging), whereas prior to that most such securitization had been performed by FNMA/FHLMC? J. Noel Chiappa 13:57, 25 October 2008 (UTC)

I'm afraid that I know no more than is contained in the references. Nick Gardner 14:40, 25 October 2008 (UTC)
What I was saying was that I didn't understand what you meant by the sentence fragment I quoted. Could you rephrase it to make it a little clearer? J. Noel Chiappa 16:35, 25 October 2008 (UTC)

Confession and invitation

I have been mainly preccupied with the "Crash of 2008" etc, and I may not have consulted some ot the important sources of material for this article. I will try to get round to doing another search, but in the meantime I should welcome a contribution from someone else Nick Gardner 14:57, 25 October 2008 (UTC)

I'm not sure if you consider the New York Times a good source, but I've found a number of their articles to be pretty enlightening. If you'd like, I can look some up and list them here. J. Noel Chiappa 16:35, 25 October 2008 (UTC)
Yes please! Nick Gardner 18:08, 25 October 2008 (UTC)